They that offer this argument do not see the 3rdC as being redundant. They would simply say the 2ndC appears to be talking about man-made depictions of God vs. the 3rdC (in this context) the misuse of the said man-made depictions (which would be any use). Thus, they see them overlapping, but different (making vs. using the made depiction).

On a different note how would you respond to John Frame's analysis of the 2ndC?

Thanks Justin for taking the time to answer these questions. Both the book and your personal time here are much appreciated.
In Christ,
5 Solas